Re: op strongest
Go back to the World War. Germany beat France, United Kingdom, Russia, and Greece altogether. Why did they weaken when the US came? If those countries attacked the US (hypothetically) then the US would lose. But no, Germany lost to US intervention. Why is that? Would the US win against the combined forces of France, the UK, Russia and Greece too?
Originally Posted by Dracule
No. Germany was spent after all that blitzkrieg they just did, and their manpower was spread all over Europe. The US just poured all of their forces into Normandy and nothing else.
Same logic applies to this. WB vs Marines, WB is beaten, Shanks arrives. Why would the spent Marines fight Shanks, when they just got off a fight with WB himself? Because pirates? I don't think so.
Btw don't take this personally.